Sorry if this is a dumb question, but I don't think I've ever really baked with wheat/wholemeal flour before. But am wanting to give it a go in some savory recipes. Anyway if a recipe contained 1 cup of white flour. I'm thinking I could use 1 cup of wholemeal instead, but I may have to add a little extra liquid because wholemeal flour is probably more dense?
Would it be that simple, or is my theory half baked? Tia :-)
wildflower,
Mar 2, 2:09am
Yep I do it all the time; I usually add a little extra water and baking powder too if the recipe has it.
nisty,
Mar 2, 2:28am
Thanks for the reply. I ended up giving it ago ( before you replied ) & the results were pretty flat. I was thinking a bit more baking powder might have been better.
wildflower,
Jan 25, 5:41pm
Yeah wholemeals just a bit heavier and dryer but I always sub some white flour in scones, pita bread, pretty much anything like that.
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